In the Quran, we are told about the differing "waiting periods" for divorce. This waiting period was a time before the divorce where the husband and wife could not have intercourse, in order to ensure the woman was not pregnant before the divorce was finalized.
In Surah 64, a waiting period is given for those who have not yet menstruated:
Surah 65:4 (Khattab)
4 As for your women past the age of menstruation, in case you do not know, their waiting period is three months, and those who have not yet menstruated as well. As for those who are pregnant, their waiting period ends with delivery.
Also, critically note that there was no waiting period prescribed unless the husband and wife had had intercourse:
Surah 33:49 (Hilali-Khan)
O you who believe! When you marry believing women, and then divorce them before you have sexual intercourse with them, no 'Iddah (divorce prescribed period, see Surah 65:4) have you to count in respect of them. So give them a present, and set them free i.e. divorce, in a handsome manner.
Since Muhammad is giving provisions and guidelines for divorcing prepubescent girls, the obvious implication is that marrying them is permissible. No condemnation of such a marriage is ever found, or even hinted at in the Quran.
Therefore it can be clearly seen that it is morally permissible not only to have intercourse with children in Islam, but also divorce them after having defiled them, making them available for someone else to do the same, which takes one evil perversion, and adds to it an even more wicked, abominable perversion.
I've included the translator's names in the Quran references above because, as is almost always the case in anything embarrassing, evil, or insane in Islam, some translators will try to hide the fact that Surah 65:4 pertains to children.
Likewise, Muslim apologists will argue that the verse pertains to barren women, who are unable to menstruate for medical reasons. This refutes itself, as obviously such would not need a "waiting period", considering they cannot get pregnant to start with.
How do we know without a doubt that this verse was intended to apply to children? Because all of the best, and most highly-regarded Tafsir (Quranic commentary) on the passage unanimously agree that this is correct interpretation.
Tafsir Al-Tabari (883 AD), typically the most highly-regarded Tafsir historically, says about the passage:
Tafsir Al-Tabari Volume 14:142 on Surah 65:4
The interpretation of the verse: "And those of your women as have passed the age of monthly courses, for them the 'Iddah (prescribed waiting period), if you have doubt (about their periods), is three months. The same applies to the 'idaah for girls who do not menstruate because they are too young, if their husbands divorce them after consummating the marriage with them.
Ibn Kathir's Tafsir is typically regarded as on-par with al-Tabari, or a close second, and it says:
Tafsir Ibn Kathir on Surah 65:4
Allah the Exalted clarifies the waiting period of the woman in menopause. And that is the one whose menstruation has stopped due to her older age. Her 'Iddah is three months instead of the three monthly cycles for those who menstruate, which is based upon the Ayah in (Surat) Al-Baqarah. (see 2:228) The same for the young, who have not reached the years of menstruation.
Tafisr al-Jalalayn is another very popular Tafsir, and it agrees with both of the above:
Tafsir al-Jalalayn on Surah 65:4
And as for those of your women who read allā'ī or allā'i in both instances no longer expect to menstruate - if you have any doubts about their waiting period their prescribed waiting period shall be three months, and also for those who have not yet menstruated because of their young age - their period shall also be three months.
The commentaries on the Quran that are highly esteemed by Muslims are very clear on the passage. Muslims have historically understood this to refer to divorcing a child whom the man has had intercourse with, and acted accordingly. Never allow someone to try and whitewash this passage.
There's a reason, after all, that child marriage has been done in the Islamic world for centuries even until today. One can hardly imagine the untold amount of misery, suffering, death and illness throughout the centuries as a result of this provision for child marriage and divorce.
Islam, therefore, allows one to marry a child, have intercourse with them (potentially killing them in the process - a child's body can be sent into shock or be internally injured from intercourse), and then issue them a no-fault divorce, and send them on their way.
According to Islam's own sources, Muhammad himself married and had intercourse with a pre-pubescent girl, named Aisha.
Prior to their marriage, Muhammad claimed to have received a dream, in which an angel revealed Aisha to him as his bride:
Sahih al-Bukhari 7012
Narrated Aisha:
Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) said to me, "You were shown to me twice (in my dream) before I married you. I saw an angel carrying you in a silken piece of cloth, and I said to him, 'Uncover (her),' and behold, it was you. I said (to myself), 'If this is from Allah, then it must happen.' Then you were shown to me, the angel carrying you in a silken piece of cloth, and I said (to him), 'Uncover (her), and behold, it was you. I said (to myself), 'If this is from Allah, then it must happen.' "
This is also narrated in Sahih al-Bukhari 3895.
At some point after this dream, Muhammad proposed marriage to her father, Abu Bakr, who was the first Caliph, and it seems clear that he was reluctant to grant her to Muhammad:
Sahih al-Bukhari 5081
Narrated 'Urwa:
The Prophet (ﷺ) asked Abu Bakr for `Aisha's hand in marriage. Abu Bakr said "But I am your brother." The Prophet (ﷺ) said, "You are my brother in Allah's religion and His Book, but she (Aisha) is lawful for me to marry."
To establish her age at the time of their marriage, we can turn to one of many Hadith that give her age at marriage as six, and her age at consummation at nine:
Sahih al-Bukhari 5133
Narrated 'Aisha:
That the Prophet (ﷺ) married her when she was six years old and he consummated his marriage when she was nine years old, and then she remained with him for nine years (i.e., till his death).
The 6 canonical Hadith collections are unanimous in stating that Aisha was nine years old when they had intercourse. The references are:
The only collection that doesn't mention her age is Jami at-Tirmidhi. Some of the references disagree as to whether she was six or seven years old at the time of marriage, but all agree that the consummation was at nine years old.
First note that a nine year-old menstruating is extremely rare. Also, they were going by the Lunar calendar, and a Lunar year is about 11 days shorter than our calendar, meaning Aisha would be even younger than a typical nine year-old as we think of them today.
However, let's for a moment give Muhammad the benefit of the doubt. Let's say that he waited for 3 years after the marriage in order to allow her to reach menstruation.
This would be completely irrelevant, as menstruation is not unilaterally the sign that a girl is able to have intercourse. It is the token that she has begun a hormonal change which takes years to fully realize, and if it did happen to a nine year-old, basic decency (especially if you are a 54 year-old man with nearly a dozen other wives, plus slave girls) would exhort waiting.
If a girl gets pregnant before her birth canal and hips widen, she can die in childbirth. Young mothers are at a far higher risk for various birth complications, and their children are also much more likely to be born prematurely, underweight, or with birth defects.
However, coming back to reality, we know that the nine year-old Aisha had not yet menstruated when the 54 year-old Muhammad had intercourse with her.
How do we know? Islam's own sources tell us:
Sahih al-Bukhari 6130
Narrated 'Aisha:
I used to play with the dolls in the presence of the Prophet, and my girl friends also used to play with me. When Allah's Messenger (ﷺ) used to enter (my dwelling place) they used to hide themselves, but the Prophet would call them to join and play with me. (The playing with the dolls and similar images is forbidden, but it was allowed for 'Aisha at that time, as she was a little girl, not yet reached the age of puberty.) (Fath-ul-Bari page 143, Vol.13)
Dolls are regarded as images in Islam, and are therefore Haram. However, Aisha was playing with dolls up to the point when she lived with Muhammad. This is significant because she was only admitted to his house after the marriage:
Sahih Muslim 1422b
'A'isha (Allah be pleased with her) reported:
Allah's Apostle (ﷺ) married me when I was six years old, and I was admitted to his house when I was nine years old.
Sahih an-Nasai 3378
It was narrated that 'Aishah said:
The Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) married me when I was six, and consummated the marriage with me when I was nine, and I used to play with dolls.
So then, why did he wait three years after the marriage to consummate it if she was still pre-pubescent at the time of consummation?
Other Hadith indicate it was because she had an illness that made her hair fall out:
Sahih al-Bukhari 3894
Narrated Aisha:
The Prophet (ﷺ) engaged me when I was a girl of six (years). We went to Medina and stayed at the home of Bani-al-Harith bin Khazraj. Then I got ill and my hair fell down. Later on my hair grew (again) and my mother, Um Ruman, came to me while I was playing in a swing with some of my girl friends. She called me, and I went to her, not knowing what she wanted to do to me.
She caught me by the hand and made me stand at the door of the house. I was breathless then, and when my breathing became alright, she took some water and rubbed my face and head with it. Then she took me into the house. There in the house I saw some Ansari women who said, "Best wishes and Allah's Blessing and a good luck." Then she entrusted me to them and they prepared me (for the marriage). Unexpectedly Allah's Apostle came to me in the forenoon and my mother handed me over to him, and at that time I was a girl of nine years of age.
This is also narrated in Sahih Muslim 1422a and Sunan ibn-Majah 1950.
As soon as her hair grew down to her ears, he had intercourse with her, meaning his basis for even waiting until she was nine years old was purely aesthetic:
Sunan abu-Dawud 4935
Narrated Aisha, Ummul Mu'minin:
When we came to Medina, the women came to me when I was playing on the swing, and my hair was up to my ears. They brought me, prepared me, and decorated me. Then they brought me to the Messenger of Allah (ﷺ) and he took up cohabitation with me, when I was nine.
So, in light of the above, it's not unreasonable to speculate that Muhammad probably would have had intercourse with a six year-old, if she hadn't had the illness that made her hair fall out.
Muslims must face the fact that their "prophet" manipulated his closest companion Abu Bakr into giving him his daughter Aisha in marriage. Then, he abused the girl by having intercourse with her when she was still a child.
Do Muslims expect us to believe that a 54 year-old man doing such things is ever justifiable? Does a 9 year-old girl who is playing with dolls and swings sound psychologically ready to have intercourse with a 50 year-old man? Do they expect us to believe that God waited thousand of years to give His final revelation to a guy who would have intercourse with a nine year-old, despite having over a dozen other wives and concubines?
Muslims are rightfully ashamed of their pedophile prophet, and so they actively seek to obscure or reject the above information. This only bears witness to the fact that they know what Muhammad did, and allowed, is filthy.
The amount of suffering Muhammad's teachings on child marriage have caused throughout the last 13 centuries is incalculable. And, the liars who promote this false religion in modern times are every bit as wicked as Muhammad, but worse, as they have the benefit of 1,300 years of hindsight, and all of the modern medical knowledge to know how damaging this practice is.